(According to my human criteria)
At any rate, this argument claims that it does not matter what our human criteria says because this god is not bound by human criteria. For this reason--they tell us-- we are in no position to question or to judge God's action and thus we are unable to see into God's "Divine Plan" which is mysteriously and intrinsically "good." This is a hair-splitting riddle. If this god is not bound by our human criteria, why the fuck then they claim he is "good"? There is also, of course, a glaring inauspicious implication in this argument. For example, if "God" turns out not to exist, does that mean that slavery, rape, incest and torture are ok? Of course, this is more of a rhetorical question because we already know that the god of the bible sanctions slavery, rape, killing, pillaging, incest, etc. "Divine Command" argument, then, entails that anything can be good or bad, right or wrong. If "God" orders you to murder your own mother, as a good christian--following in the footsteps of old and dusty Abraham--you should neither question [His] reason nor you should have any qualms about carrying out [His] order. According to the "Divine Command" argument it would be intrinsically "morally right" and a "good thing" to do, and it does not matter if you cannot comprehend the reason as to why. You do not need to understand the conundrum. All you need to do is to have "faith," trust your god and murder your mother. Hopefully your god will intervene right before you're about butcher your mother.
"Rise, take your journey, and cross over the River Arnon. Look, I have given into your hand Sihon the Amonite, king of Hershbon and his land. Begin to possess it, and engage him in battle…"
What could possibly have done this king and his people to provoke the wrath of a god who is supposed to be "peace loving," "just," "merciful," and "compassionate"? What could be the plausible reason for the ruthless slaughtering—including women and children—of this people commanded by this god—the same god who then instructed Moses "not to harass or meddle with the Moabites and the Ammonites" (Deuteronomy 2:19) who happen to be the bastard descendants of an abhorrent act of incest between Lot and his two daughters? Is this act an expression of this god's essential "goodness"?
"Blessed is the one who grabs your little children and smashes them against a rock." (Psalm 137:9)
If any of us were to deliberately commit all or any of these acts, we would consider that individual to be a vile and evil person; and no apologetic arguments on his behalf and defense would be issued by anyone in his or her right mind. But an exception is made with the biblical god. If this god is not evil, what acts then would this god have to commit to be considered evil?